MOST COMMON IN MEDICINE SUESTION

MOST COMMON

1° Tumor arising from bone in adults	Multiple Myeloma
Adrenal Medullary Tumor ­ Adults	Pheochromocytoma
Adrenal Medullary Tumor ­ Children	Neuroblastoma
Bacterial Meningitis ­ adults	Neisseria meningitidis
Bacterial Meningitis ­ elderly	Strep pneumoniae
Bacterial Meningitis ­ newborns	E. coli
Bacterial Meningitis ­ toddlers	Hib
Bone Tumors	Metasteses from Breast & Prostate
Brain Tumor ­ Child	Medulloblastoma (cerebellum)
Brain Tumor ­Adult	Astrocytoma (including Glioblastoma Multiforme) then: mets, meningioma, Schwannoma
Breast Carcinoma	Invasive Duct Carcinoma
Breast Mass	Fibrocystic Change (Carcinoma is the most common is post-menopausal women)
Bug in Acute Endocarditis	Staph aureus
Bug in debilitated, hospitalized pneumonia pt	Klebsiella
Bug in Epiglottitis	Hib
Bug in GI Tract	Bacteroides (2nd ­ E. coli)
Bug in IV drug user bacteremia / pneumonia	Staph aureus
Bug in PID	N. Gonnorrhoeae
Bug in Subacute Endocarditis	Strep Viridans
Cardiac 1° Tumor ­ Adults	Myxoma "Ball Valve"
Cardiac 1° Tumor ­ Child	Rhabdomyoma
Cardiac Tumor ­ Adults	Metasteses
Cardiomyopathy	Dilated (Congestive) Cardiomyopathy
Cause of 2° HTN	Renal Disease
Cause of Addison's	Autoimmune (2nd ­ infection)
Cause of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia	21-Hydroxylase Deficiency (then, 11-)
Cause of Cushings	Exogenous Steroid Therapy (then, 1° - ACTH, Adrenal Adenoma, Ectopic ACTH)
Cause of death in Alzheimer pts	Pneumonia
Cause of death in Diabetics	MI
Cause of Death in SLE pts.	Lupus Nephropathy Type IV (Diffuse Proliferative)
Cause of Dementia	Alzheimer's
Cause of Dementia (2nd most common)	Multi-Infarct Dementia
Cause of food poisoning	Staph aureus
Cause of mental retardation	Down's
Cause of mental retardation (2nd most common)	Fragile X
Cause of preventable blindness	Chlamydia
Cause of Pulmonary HTN	COPD
Cause of SIADH	Small Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
Chromosomal disorder	Down's
Congenital cardiac anomaly	VSD (membranous > muscular)
Congenital early cyanosis	Tetralogy of Fallot
Coronary Artery thrombosis	LAD
Demyelinating Disease	Multiple Sclerosis
Dietary Deficiency	Iron
Disseminated opportunistic infection in AIDS	CMV (Pneumocystis carinii is most common overall)
Esophageal cancer	SCCA
Fatal genetic defect in Caucasians	Cystic Fibrosis
Female Tumor	Leimyoma
Form of Amyloidosis	Immunologic (Bence Jones protein in multiple myeloma is also called the Amyloid Light Chain)
Form of Tularemia	Ulceroglandular
Gynecologic malignancy	Endometrial Carcinoma
Heart Murmur	Mitral Valve Prolapse
Heart Valve in bacterial endocarditis	Mitral
Heart Valve in bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users	Tricuspid
Heart Valve involved in Rheumatic Fever	Mitral then Aortic
Hereditary Bleeding Disorder	Von Willebrand's Disease
Liver 1° Tumor	Hepatoma
Liver Disease	Alcoholic Liver Disease
Location of Adult brain tumors	Above Tentorium
Location of Childhood brain tumors	Below Tentorium
Lysosomal Storage Disease	Gaucher's
Motor Neuron Disease	ALS
Neoplasm ­ Child	Leukemia
Neoplasm ­ Child (2nd most common)	Medulloblastoma of brain (cerebellum)
Nephrotic Syndrome	Membranous Glomerulonephritis
Opportunistic infection in AIDS	PCP
Ovarian Malignancy	Serous Cystadenoma
Ovarian Tumor	Hamartoma
Pancreatic Tumor	Adeno (usually in the head)
Patient with ALL / CLL / AML / CML	ALL - Child / CLL - Adult over 60 / AML - Adult over 60 / CML - Adult 35-50
Patient with Goodpasture's	Young male
Patient with Reiter's	Male
Pituitary Tumor	Prolactinoma (2nd ­ Somatotropic "Acidophilic" Adenoma)
Primary Hyperparathyroidism	Adenomas (followed by: hyperplasia, then carcinoma)
Pt. With Hodgkin's	Young Male (except Nodular Sclerosis type ­ Female)
Pt. With Minimal Change Disease	Young Child
Secondary Hyperparathyroidism	Hypocalcemia of Chronic Renal Failure
Sexually transmitted disease	Chlamydia
Site of Diverticula	Sigmoid Colon
Site of metastasis	Regional Lymph Nodes
Site of metastasis (2nd most common)	Liver
Sites of atherosclerosis	Abdominal aorta > coronary > popliteal > carotid
Skin Cancer	Basal Cell Carcinoma
Stomach cancer	Adeno
Testicular Tumor	Seminoma
Thyroid Cancer	Papillary Carcinoma
Tracheoesophageal Fistula	Lower esophagus joins trachea / upper esophagus ­ blind pouch
Tumor of Infancy	Hemangioma
Type of Hodkin's	Mixed Cellularity (versus: lymphocytic predominance, lymphocytic depletion, nodular sclerosis)
Type of Non-Hodgkin's	Follicular, small cleaved
Vasculitis (of medium & small arteries)	Temporal Arteritis
Viral Encephalitis	HSV
Worm infection in US	Pinworm (2nd ­ Ascaris)

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UPSC-CMS ONLINE MOCK TEST 2015

UPSC-CMS FREE ONLINE MOCK TEST 2015 question 

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1. True about Chondrosarcoma are
a. It is a malignant tumor
b. It is a bone forming tumor
c. 25% of all biopsied malignant bone tumors are chondrosarcomas
d. Synovial chondromatosis can turn into a chondrosarcoma
e. 8-17% of all biopsied primary bone tumors are chondrosarcomas

2. Which of the folllowing can progress to become a chondrosarcoma
a. Enchondroma
b. Osteochondroma
c. Chondromyxoid fibroma
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Synovial chondromatosis

3. Myxoid chondrosarcoma belongs to which grade of chondrosarcoma
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. None

4. Find the true statement/s
a. Chondrosarcoma is common in children
b. 50% of patients are more than 40 years old with a mean peak incidence of 50 years
c. Male to female ratio is 1.5:1
d. Clinical presentation is usually pain of insidious onset
e. Chondrosarcoma can also present with palpable mass(28%) or pathological fracture(27%)

5. Which of the following is the least commonly affected site for chondrosarcoma?
a. Pelvis
b. Proximal Femur
c. Proximal Humerus
d. Hands and Feet

6. Find the false statement/s
a. A central chondroid tumor with pain or increased growth should be regarded as chondrosarcoma until proven otherwise by biopsy or benign clinical progress
b. Chondrosarcoma is suggested if the level of scintigraphic activity in the lesion is greater than that in the anterior iliac crest
c. Calcification occurs in 29% of chondrosarcomas on CT
d. Deep endosteal cortical scalloping (greater than 2/3rds) is suggestive of chondrosarcoma as opposed to chondroma

7. Radiographic features of Chondrosarcoma are all except
a. 75% of cases show calcification
b. Small low grade chondrosarcoma may not be differentiated from a chondroma, appearing as a well defined lytic lesion with chondroid matrix mineralization.
c. Plain radiography may not accurately define medullary involvement
d. Periosteal reaction is a rare feature of chondrosarcomas

8. MRI features of chondrosarcoma are
a. Lesion is slightly hypointense to muscle on T1 and may show focal areas of hyperintensity due to trapped areas of marrow
b. Malignant cartilage shows characteristic increased signal intensity on T2 images and a multilobulated appearance
c. Matrix mineralization manifests as focal areas of signal void
d. Most chondrosarcomas are very well vascularized and enhancement after IV contrast is excellent
e. T2 images have proven valuable in the identification of dedifferentiation, in which case a region of intermediate signal intensity adjacent to the typical hyperintense chondral tumor mass is seen

9. Which of the following are true regarding a Secondary Peripheral Chondrosarcoma developing from an Osteochondroma
a. Most Osteochondromas have cartilage caps no thicker than 5mm and a cap in excess of 20mm is likely to be malignant
b. Radiological features of malignant change consist of destruction of part of the calcified cap or ossified stem of the osteochondroma
c. Malignant change should be suspected clinically if pain develops or continued growth occurs after skeletal maturity
d. Radiographs are usually used to measure the thickness of the cartilage cap of the osteochondroma

10. True statement/s about Periosteal Chondrosarcoma (a rare form of chondrosarcoma)
a. Typically involves long bones
b. Most commonly involves distal femoral and proximal humeral metaphyses
c. More common in men with a wide range of presentation
d. Radiologically a calcified juxtacortical mass is seen, with cortical thickening and periosteal reaction
e. Involvement of medulla is rare
f. Prognosis is poor.

11. True statement/s about Mesenchymal Chondrosarcoma (another rare type of chondrosarcoma)
a. Occurs at a younger age (third and fourth decade)
b. Much more cellular malignant matrix than a normal chondrosarcoma
c. Some predilection for ribs and mandible noted
d. Indistinguishable from a central chondrosarcoma and often shows characteristic chondroid calcification
e. Local recurrence and disseminated metastases occur late and less frequently than with conventional chondrosarcoma

12. True statement about Clear-cell Chondrosarcoma (another rare type of Chondrosarcoma)
a. 2% of all chondrosarcomas
b. It is a high grade type of Chondrosarcoma
c. Patient has a long history and a better prognosis
d. Radiographically resembles Chondroblastoma and Chondromyxoid fibroma
e. Involves the ends of long bones, especially the proximal ends of femur or humerus after closure of the growth plate
f. Lesion is usually lytic and may present a loculated or soap-bubble appearance

---------------

ANSWERS:

1. a,c,d and e are true statements. b is false because chondrosarcomas are cartilage forming tumors and not bone forming tumors. Examples of bone forming tumors are the benign osteoma, osteoid osteoma, osteoblastoma and the malignant osteosarcoma.

2. All of them can progress to a chondrosarcoma.

3. b. Grade 2. Based on the histological grade, chondrosarcomas are classified into low grade (grade 1 - 45-50% of cases), Myxoid (grade 2 - 30-43% of cases) and high grade (grade 3 - 8-25% of cases). It is important to remember that there is an entity called dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma where along side chondrosarcoma another malignant high grade non-chondroid neoplasm is present (it evolves from chondrosarcoma) like Osteosarcoma or Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma.

4. b,c,d and e are true. a is the false statement because chondrosarcoma is rare in children.

5. d. Hands and feet. Only 1-4% of all chondrosarcomas develop in the Hands and feet.

6. c is the false statement. 92% of chondrosarcomas show calcifications on CT and 75% of chondrosarcomas show calcifications on Radiography.

7. d is the wrong statement. 50% of chondrosarcomas show periosteal reaction.

8. d is very wrong. Most of the chondrosarcomas are poorly vascularized and show very minimal contrast enhancement typically a peripheral or septal pattern.

9. d is a wrong statement. Cartilage caps are not visible on radiographs.

10. f is the only wrong statement. After resection of the tumor, this type of chondrosarcoma has good prognosis.

11. e is the only wrong statement. Mesenchymal Chondrosarcoma which almost radiologically appears similar to the typical central chondrosarcoma has a cellular matrix which is more malignant than the typical central chondrosarcoma and so the metastases happen more early and more commonly when compared to the typical variety.

12. b is the only wrong statement. The clear cell chondrosarcoma is a low grade tumor and that is the reason for the long history and better prognosis. 

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FMGE ONLINE MOCK TEST 2015 QUESTIONS

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1 all are derivates of nueral crest except=adrenal cortex

2 BRANCH of lumbar plexuses which emerge from anterior surface of psoas major muscle is genitofemoral shocked but its true

3 round window of middle ear is closed by sec tympanic membrane

4 portal vein formation lies posterior to the neck of pancreas

5 the knee joint is supported by all of the following ligament except inverted y shaped ligament of bigelow

6 stimulation of j receptors causes all of the following except hyper tension

7 the structures outside the blood brain barrier are all of the following except locus ceruleus

8 all are true regarding erythropoietin except its blood level is markedly decreased in anaemia

9 the major stimulus for receptive relaxation of the stomach is food in the stomach

10 deuterium oxide is used to measure the volume of total body water

11 all of the following similarities are true regarding dna and rna except pentose sugar is ribose

12 one of the following has energy rich bonds =GTP

13 co enzyme a contains panthoneic acid

14 blood levels of WOF aminoacids serve as an index of increased cvs risk =homocysteine

15 profuse watery diarrhoea in cholera is due to foollwing action of toxin=ADP ribolysation of stimulatory G protein

16anti platelet action of aspirin is due to inhibition of synthesis of TXA2

17 busipirone=5 ht agonist and anti anxiety

18 not correct abt sulfonyl urea is used in type 1 DM

19 vareniciline novel nicotonic antagonist approved for smoking cessation

20 not produced by cholinomimetics=urinary retention controversy

21 organism that does not grow at normal atmosphere tension but requires traces of o2 in metabolism is microaerophilic

22 intracellular survival of M.tb is due to prevention of fusion of phagosome with lysosome

23 entero test is done for giardiasis

24 all are vapour phase disinfectants except thiomersal

25 mice are used for isolation except echo virus

26 warthin finkedly cells are seen in measles

27 philadelphia chromosome was first discovered by nowell and hungerford

28 PTHrp produced by squamous epithelial cells of the skin

29 metastases of malignant tumour of brain =all of the above

30 centrilobular empysema=respiratory bronchiole

31 corbus disease=gangrenou balanitis

32 hodgkins lymphoma with negative cd 15 and cd 30=lymphocyte predominant

33 ames test for mutagenicity

34 macro orchidism in post pubertal males =fragile x syndrome

35 germ cell tumour of ovary= benign cystic teratoma

36 gila monster is a type of lizard

37 danbury tremors =mercury poisoning

38 min punishment for gang rape is 10 years

39 paltauf hemorrhage=drowning

40 masochism = sexual gratification is sought by being beaten ,tormented or humilated by ones sexual partner

41 a sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives is called programme

42 most commonly used measure of variation is standard deviation

43 e.coli indicator of bacterial quality and contamination of water

44 tiger mosquito =aedes

45 biological vector for q fever =tick

46 case control study for rare diseases

47 ICDS=integrated child hood development and services

48 social security none of the above

49 the instrument used to measure very low air movements in closed rooms=kata thermometer

50 principles of health education include all except punishment

51 non pancreatic gastrinomas are mostly located in duodenum

52 h pylori colonisation is a risk factor for all except adenocarcinoma of diatal stomach

53 the first choice of DMARD for intial treatment of moderate to severe ra is montherapy methotrexate

54 most common cause of increased red cell protoporohyrins is vitamin b 12 deficency

55 chronic pericardial effusion that is massive but rarely causes cardiac tamponade is myxoedema

56 holiday heart syndrome most friquently manifests as atrial fibrillation

57 essential component of multi drug regimen in treatment of staphylocoocal prosthetic valve endocarditis is vancomycin

58 autonomic neuropathy in type 1 and type 2 as all except anhidrosis of upper extremities

59 most common cause of growth hormone releasing hormone mediated acromegaly = chest or abdominal carcinoids

60 acute kidney injury caused by acyclovir is due to acute interstial nephritis

61 lesch nyhan syndrome is characterised by all except partial deficency of hprt

62 hyper prolactinemia is caused by all except hyperthyroidism

63 the drug of choice in pts with generalised epilepsy syndromes having mixed seizures is valproic acid

64 most cases of hemifacial spasm are related to vascular compression of facial nerve in pons

65 most common cause of cardioemboli stroke is non rheumatic atrial fibrillation,this will trigerr doubts i think but in many journals its given

66 extra renal manifestations of ADPKD INCLUDE ALL EXCEPT splenic cyst i think

67 focal seizures in bacterial meningitis are usually due to cortical venous thrombosis with haemorrhage

68 patchy specific lesions are seen on small bowel biopsy except whipple disease

69 nicotonic acid significantly reduces plasma levels of LPa

70 in pts with severe structural lung disease most common infective agent= to cause pneumonia=P.AERUGINOSA

71 MOST COMMON LIFE threatening complication of squamous cell carcinoma of lung=hyper calcemia

72 predsominant cause of diarrhoea in elderly patients in chronic care insitutions is C.difficile

73 bronchiectasis predominant central airways is seen in ABPA

74 ALL ARE S/E OF interferon are reversible upone dose cessation of therapy except autoimmune thyroiditis

75 in juvenile pernicious anemia all are present except parietal cell bodies

76 haemolytic anemia can occur in patients with severe alcholic hepatitis =zieve syndrome
77 in vertebral osteomyelitis ,anterior erosion of superior end plate of vertebra are typically the first feature to become evident in TB

78 aplastic anemia with pancreatic in sufficency and malabsorption is seen in shwachmann diamond syndrome

79 the areas most often invoved in lesions of toxoplasmosis in cns includes all except meninges

80 autosommal recessive hyper ig e syndrome is characterised by all except deficency in tyk-2 ,its is dock 8 mutation

81 all are primary causes of nephrotic syndrome in infants except sle

82 regarding reye syndrome false is condition usually observed in children less than 3 years

83 hemorrhagic cystitis is associated with cyclophoshamide

84 18 month old boy with prominent eye ball and abdomen=neuroblastoma

85 triad of chorioretinitis ,microcephaly and intracerebral calcification=toxoplasmosis

86 5yr girl with joint pain ,iridocyclitis=JRA

87 7 YR OLD BOY short stature ,large skull ,prominent forehead ,saddle shaped nose,scoliosis normal intelligence=noonans syndrome

88 immediately after birth .the preventable cause of mental retardation are all except
hurler syndrome

89 associated with large ant fontanelle =all of the above

90 an agreesively looking thin and tall 15 year old with long limbs and small testis= chromosomal analysis

91 relative humidity of alevolar air=100%

92 emergence reaction is found with ketamine

93 signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic toxicity except diarrhoea

94 one bar=15 psi

95 drugs used for tb prophylaxsis= isoniazid

96 in tb to be positive at least 1 in 10,000org per ml of sputum

97 most common cause of hemothorax =iatrogenic

98 hypercalcemia in sarcoidosisis result of increased production of 1,25 di hydroxy vitamin d

99 sycosis barbe=staph

100 golden yellow on woods lamp=tinea versicolor


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DNB-CET ONLINE MOCK TEST 2015 QUESTION

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6.extra renal manifestations of ADPKD include all except
A.saccular aneurysms
B.aortic root and annulus dilation
C.colonic diverticulae
D.splenic cysts
Answer.d.splenic cysts.

7.a unique form of hemolytic anemia (with spur cells and acanthocytes) can occur in patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis . This is called as
A.kostamann's syndrome
B.zieve's syndrome
C.seckel syndrome
D.dubowitz syndrome
Answer.b.zieve's syndrome.

8.aplastic anemia with pancreatic insufficiency and malabsorption is seen in
A.fanconi's anemia
B.dyskeratosis congenita
C.shwachman diamond syndrome
D.diamond Blackfan syndrome
Ans.c.shwachman diamond syndrome

9.hemorrhagic cystitis is a dreaded complication with use of
A.clobazam
B.cyclosporin A
C.cycloserine
D.cyclophosphamide
Ans.d.cyclophosphamide.

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AIPGMEE ONLINE MOCK TEST QUESTIONS 2015

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1.Non pancreatic gastrinomas are mostly located in
A.duodenum
B.stomach
C.liver
D.heart
Answer.a.duodenum.

2.the holiday heart syndrome which typically appears after a drinking binge manifests most frequently as
A.heart failure
B.atrial fibrillation
C.complete heart block
D.sudden death
Answer.2.atrial fibrillation.

3.acute kidney injury caused by acyclovir is due to
A.tubular necrosis
B.tubular obstruction
C.acute interstitial nephritis
D.all the above
Answer.d.all the above.

4.lesch-nyhan syndrome is characterised by all except
A.hyperuricemia
B.self mutilation behaviour
C.choreoathetosis
D.partial deficiency of HPRT
Answer.d.partial deficiency of HPRT.

5.hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except
A.drugs
B.pituitary stalk compression
C.hyperthyroidism
D.renal failure
Answer.hyperthyroidism.

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HIGH YEILD TOPICS FOR 2015 MEDICAL PG EXAMS.

http://www.doctorsquiz.com  important topics for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS   online medical examination .

1.Do CBT questions, e.g. From http://www.doctorsquiz.com  mock test and subject wise test and  DOCTORS QUIZ QUESTION BANK

2.Take a simulated test day (1-2 hr subject wise test and mock test from http://www.doctorsquiz.com

3.Take ‘mock board’ shelf examination given by - DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS  

 4. Take care of yourself (Schedule that includes)

A. Exercise

B. Nutrition

C. Sleeping

IMPORTANT  TOPIC  FOR DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS  

The skill areas FOR THE DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS   online mock test .

Applying knowledge and experience to clinical practice

    Epidemiology and health promotion

    Genetics

    Anatomy

    Physiology

    Pathology and microbiology

    Pharmacology and biochemistry

    Social science and statistics

Good clinical care-FOR DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS  

    Diagnosis

    Investigation: choice of appropriate tests

    Investigation: interpretation of results

Good clinical care management-

    Acute including emergency

    Long-term

    Symptom relief and end of life

    Peri-operative

Presentations and conditions for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS  

The topics we test are set out on the left hand column of the sampling grid and are largely defined by the symptoms with which the patient presents. These are:

    Blood and lymph

    Musculoskeletal

    Infectious disease

    Skin

    Homeostatic

    Endocrine

    Neurological

    Respiratory

    Renal

    Urological

    Genitourinary

    Cardiovascular

    ENT

    Eye

    Digestive

    Reproductive

    Breast

    Mental health

    Seriously ill patient

    Developmental problems

STUDENT TIPS

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DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS . This is a ‘multiple choice’ type exam question (or ‘item’) which you might also hear referred to as ‘best of FOUR’ or ‘one from FOUR’. For each question you must choose only one of the options. You may feel that there are several possible answers, but you must choose the best one from the option list. If you enter more than one answer on the answer sheet you will gain no mark for the question even though you may have given the right answer along with one or more wrong ones.

STUDENTS  tips :- FOR - DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS .

1.      Do CBT questions, e.g. From http://www.doctorsquiz.com  mock test and subject wise test and  DOCTORS QUIZ QUESTION BANK

2.    

         Take a simulated test day (1-2 hr subject wise test and mock test from http://www.doctorsquiz.com

3.    

          Take ‘mock board’ shelf examination given by - DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS .

Take care of yourself (Schedule that includes)

A. Exercise

B. Nutrition

C. Sleeping

DOCTORS QUIZ DIGITAL MEDICAL RESOURSES :-

-DQ NOTES

-DQ HIGH YIELD POINTS FOR DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS .

-DQ online mock test

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-DQ Online question bank

-DQ BLOG

We http://www.doctorsquiz.com   provide FREE test . for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS   medical students that can be accessed through Quiz Section .Try our free online Mock test  AND  online mock paid test for DNB-CET, AIPGMEE,  FMGE,  DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS . So Please read the Instruction before registration to http://www.doctorsquiz.com   for ur BEST PREPERATION.

DOCTORS QUIZ NUTRITION TIPS TO KEEP YOU ALERT WHILE STUDYING FOR EXAMINATIONS .(http://www.doctorsquiz.com)

1.     DNB-CET, AIPGMEE, FMGE, DNB-PDCET,  UPSC-CMS .And other STATE  MEDICAL PG EXAMS .

Eat small, frequent meals to keep your blood sugar and energy levels steady.

Now’s the time to have easy, convenient meal-type foods on hand.

Avoid living entirely on snack .foods as they usually won’t energize. you  NEED as much as a real meal.

Avoid sweets and sugary foods. If you crave sweets, consider a high protein nutrition bar. 

Choose one that has 15 grams of protein, such as Balance Bar

Choose meals and snacks that emphasize protein over carbohydrate. Protein-rich meals and 

snacks keep your energy on an even keel. For example, snack on cheese, crackers,nuts.

You can have  even scramble some eggs.

Limit THE  caffeine-Cut back gradually. No alcohol plz..

AND TRY AS MUCH U CAN Water . keep water at your desk to help maintain your energy.

TRY TO Avoiding extra, exam-time calories

Make yourself get up to snack. Don’t bring the snacks to your study place.

Make sure your room/apartment IS CLEAN.

Study breaks - are you hungry?

Only eat when you are physically hungry, not because you are in need

of a study break. When heading for the pantry look for true hunger signals,

like stomach pangs/twinges, to be sure you’re physically hungry. If you’re not

hungry but still desire to eat, take a 10-minute time

Do something EXERCISE physical to get the blood circulating to the brain.

Don’t watch TV for a study break.

GOOD  LUCK …………….

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NEW LOOK IN NEW YEAR 2015